Dispensationalism and the King James Bible


By James Whisler

            This article is designed to show the reader the incompatibility of the King James Bible and its underlying Greek and Hebrew texts with premillenial dispensationalism and the pretribulation rapture. It is by no means a completed work as I am periodically discovering more proof, and will subsequently update this article. Through information presented elsewhere on this site I am presenting the thesis that the aforementioned doctrines, which have mysteriously worked their way into Christianity, came from Satanic origins. They have calculated goals which are intimately involved in the great falling away described in II Thessalonians 2:3 (How I think they will accomplish this is described in Insights into the Apostasy and Bill Clinton: the Decoy Antichrist).     Changes had to be made to the word of God, corrupting it in ancient times and modern times to propagate the necessary lies.  This is the documentation of those changes. 

The first important issue to discuss is the dispensational teaching of a seven year tribulation and a covenant/treaty of the same length, involving the Antichrist and Israel. This treaty is supposedly broken by this Antichrist somewhere in the middle. To the best of my knowledge, aside from the tribulation being given a seven-year length, the rest of this is not dogma etched in stone, but rather popular dispensational tradition. Regardless, it all fits tongue-and-groove in dispensationalist doctrine. When asked for scriptural evidence of this particular teaching, they will point to Daniel 9:27. It is because so much hinges on this verse that we must give a thorough examination to its true meaning:                    

" And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate."    Daniel 9:27 KJV

First of all, I will attempt to prove that this covenant is a preexisting one between the LORD and his people and that the one who confirms it is the messiah. Genesis 3:15 gives the first messianic promise in scripture. A foreshadowing of Jesus coming and crushing the serpent's head and dying on the cross as the single atoning sacrifice for sin (Heb.7:27; 9:28). And in Genesis 17, God establishes this covenant with Abraham. If you read Deuteronomy 29-33, you find an expansion of the same covenant that God promises to Israel, describing how they will turn to wickedness and be scattered (Deut.29:24-28) and then he will gather them all back (Deut.30:3) and they will dwell in safety in their own land (Deut.33:28-29). Here is the expanded covenant first introduced in Deuteronomy 29:1

" These are the words of the covenant, which the LORD commanded Moses to make with the children of Israel in the land of  Moab, beside the covenant which he made with them in Horeb."

Now if you read Daniel chapter 9, you find out Daniel is interceding for his people because of their wickedness as prophesied in Deuteronomy 29:25-26. He acknowledges in verses 4 and 11, this transgression is in relation to the same covenant given to Moses. Verse 4 reads:

"And I prayed unto the LORD my God, and made my confession, and said, O Lord, the great and dreadful God,   keeping the covenant and mercy to them that love him, and to them that keep his commandments;"  (emphasis mine)

          It is at this time in his prayers and supplication that Gabriel visits him with news about the very same covenant in context. Verses 24 and 25 give the timeline in which the messiah will come and confirm the covenant. Verse 26 says:

"And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined."

          This foretells the Messiah's death and the prince (Titus, son of Emperor Vespasian) coming and destroying the city and the temple, which happened in 70 A.D. Jesus prophesied this event in Matthew 24:2. Many people assume this prince is the Antichrist, while there is no evidence to support this. Now let me try to explain verse 27:

And he …(Jesus)… shall confirm the covenant (Hebrews 9:16 “For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. please see also Heb.9:15) … with many (but not all because many also rejected his offering; Hebrews 9:28 says “So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear  the second time without sin unto salvation.)… for one week …( 7 years):… and in the midst of the week …(Jesus was sacrificed 3 ˝ years into his ministry)… he shall cause the sacrifice and oblation to cease… ( Hebrews 9:12 “Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.”   some argue that the sacrifices didn’t cease, but they did cease, at least for those who would accept his sacrificial offering for their atonement--I don't find anywhere in the new testament where Paul, Peter or any of the church fathers endorsed going to the temple to have animals sacrificed for the redemption of their sins,  Hebrews 7:27 Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people’s: for  this he did once , when he offered up himself.)...and for…(because of)…the overspreading…(great excess)…of abominations ...( notice that is plural, many abominations, not the same as the single abomination of desolation that he speaks of in Daniel 11:31 and 12:11---I believe these abominations were the unnecessary animal sacrifices being continued at the temple: Hebrews 10:18 “Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin”  --- Isaiah 66:3 He that killeth an ox is as if he slew a man; he that sacrificeth a lamb, as if he cut off a dog's neck; he that offereth an oblation, as if he offered swine's blood; he that burneth incense, as if he blessed an idol. Yea, they have chosen their own ways, and their soul delighteth in their abominations.  )...He shall make it desolate …(Hebrews 10:29-30  “Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace? 30 For we know him that hath said , Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people.” ---the Lord waited forty years, from between 30 A.D. to 70 A.D. before executing judgment. Can you think of any precedents set in the Old Testament where the Lord waited forty years before punishing or rewarding his people?)… even until the consummation… ( consummation...the completion or fulfillment, could this consummation signify the Marriage Supper of the Lamb when we all are brought to Jerusalem at his return? I believe so.)…and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate … (what he decreed, he will do.)

Galatians 3:17, which is quite possibly the best verse in the New Testament to show the Lord’s fulfillment of Daniel 9:27, says “And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.” Emphasis mine. Unfortunately, the luciferians noticed that verse (Galatians 3:17) and reworded it in the Alexandrian texts and the modern versions so that you won’t correlate it with Daniel 9:27. For example, the New International Version changed ‘confirmed’ to ‘established’, which has a different meaning altogether; and they removed Christ from the verse, entirely. (Maybe I got it all wrong. Perhaps the conspiracy lies with the King James translators in collusion with the original writers of the textus receptus and Masoretic text, to trick you into believing that God made a promise and kept that promise through Jesus Christ.)  Listed below is Galatians 3:17 in some of the new versions compared to the King James Version. Can you see the difference in the wording to change the meaning in the new versions? Can you find Christ in any of them?

Galatians 3:17

         And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

                                                                                                                                          King James Version


         This is what I am trying to say: The agreement God made with Abraham could not be canceled 430 years later when God gave the law to Moses. God would be breaking his promise.

                                                                                                                                   New Living Translation


  What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to nullify the promise.

                                                                                                                    New American Standard Version


   Now I say this, A covenant confirmed beforehand by God, the law, which took place four hundred and thirty years after, does not annul, so as to make the promise of no effect.

                                                                                                                                                       Darby Translation


   This is what I mean: the law, which came four hundred and thirty years afterward, does not annul a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to make the promise void.

                                                                                                                                 Revised Standard Version



   What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later, does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise.

                                                                                                                                          New International Version



  I am not alone in my assessment of the above covenant in question, in fact I am in good company. Matthew Henry’s Commentary has this to say about Daniel 9:27:

 The seventy weeks mean a day for a year, or 490 years. About the end of this period a sacrifice would be offered, making full atonement for sin, and bringing in everlasting righteousness for the complete justification of every believer. Then the Jews, in the crucifixion of Jesus, would commit that crime by which the measure of their guilt would be filled up, and troubles would come upon their nation. All blessings bestowed on sinful man come through Christ's atoning sacrifice, who suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God. Here is our way of access to the throne of grace, and of our entrance to heaven. This seals the sum of prophecy, and confirms the covenant with many; and while we rejoice in the blessings of salvation, we should remember what they cost the Redeemer. How can those escape who neglect so great salvation! “


             The Geneva Bible of 1599 also agrees harmoniously with this interpretation of Daniel 9:27. I will reproduce it verbatim below with their footnotes (except for the archaic spelling).


27 And he  a shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to b cease, c and for the overspreading of the abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation determined shall be poured upon the desolate.


a   By the preaching of the gospel he confirmed his promise, first to the Jews, and after to the Gentiles.      b  Christ accomplished this by his death and resurrection.      c   Meaning, that Jerusalem and the sanctuary should be utterly destroyed for their rebellion against God, and their idolatry, or as some read, that the plague shall be so great, that they shall be all astonied at them. [i]


          If you take the time to check every verse in the Old Testament that mentions ‘the covenant’, even in regards to the ‘ark of the covenant’ it is always in relation to the covenant between the Lord and his people, except in a few rare examples where another party is specifically mentioned as in Ezekiel 17:15, which was between Zedekiah and Babylon . The Israeli people were called ‘children of the covenant’ (Acts 3:25) and even the leader could be referred to as the ‘prince of the covenant’ (Daniel 11:22).   Most of the new bible versions have changed ‘the covenant’ in Daniel 9:27 to ‘a covenant’, keeping in line with the Greek Septuagint, which was written in Alexandria, Egypt about 285 B.C. by gnostics. This helps insure that you will not associate it with ‘the covenant’ mentioned in Daniel 9:4 and throughout the rest of the Old Testament. This verse has been changed so that when Satan introduced his plan of dispensationalism, it would have scripture to support it. This change, however, is in contradiction to the context in the original Hebrew Masoretic text in Daniel chapter 9. An interesting note here is the fact that before some supposedly ‘protestant’ bibles like the Darby Translation and the Revised Version showed up, the only ground dispensationalists had for believing in a seven-year tribulation was an obscure belief introduced in 1832, that the seven-day Feast of Tabernacles ( Lev. 23:34)  represented seven years in which the Church would be in heaven with God, enjoying the Marriage supper during the tribulation.[ii] Ironically, the Feast of Tabernacles symbolizes God coming down and dwelling among men and within men’s hearts ( Galatians 2:20, I Cor. 3:16; 6:19). It is possible that the ultimate fulfillment of this is represented in Revelation 21:2-3. How come they didn’t apply this conversion standard to all the Lord’s feasts?


·                    The New Living Translation of the Bible, in accordance with the dispensationalist (Masonic) agenda, translates the verse under discussion like this: 


Daniel 9:27
”He will make a treaty with the people for a period of one set of seven, but after half this time, he will put an end to the sacrifices and offerings. Then as a climax to all his terrible deeds, he will set up a sacrilegious object that causes desecration, until the end that has been decreed is poured out on this defiler." (New Living Translation)


            What a gross mistranslation. The NLT translates the same word 'treaty' as 'promises' in Daniel 9:4 so that people will not make a connection between the two. In both cases they mistranslated it. Its correct translation is  'covenant'. God's covenant with his people (#1285 in Strongs,' briyth' in Hebrew). The “He” being spoken of in the above verse is being called a ‘defiler’ and is attributed with many terrible deeds and setting up a sacrilegious object. These are unjustified changes made to the word of God. They are doing everything they can to make you think that Dan.9:27 refers not to Jesus Christ, but to the Antichrist.

            Now since it is commonly accepted that Jesus had a ministry of 3 ˝  years, where he dealt with his own people (Mathew 15:24). It is interesting to note that in the middle of confirming the old covenant, Jesus introduced the new covenant (Matthew 26:28). So he still has 3 ˝ more years to complete the covenant with the house of Israel. The other aspects that Christ is yet to fulfill, is to return the covenant people back to the land (Deut.30:3) and returning the land to their possession as an eternal inheritance (Deut.33:28-29). I believe this can be seen being fulfilled in Ezekiel 39:25-28 when he brings all tribes back and unites Judah with Ephraim (representing the 10 lost tribes) as promised (Ezekiel 37:16-23). This can also be seen in the New Testament when he pulls out his remnant of 12 thousand from each tribe (Rev.7- shown as firstfruits of all of Israel that will turn to him at his appearing). This will be happening concurrently with the tribulation of 3 ˝ years that the Antichrist reigns (Rev.13:5). Nowhere can I find scriptural evidence for a seven-year tribulation. Although the book of Revelation mentions the number seven a total of forty-four times, none of them are in reference to a seven-year period. And nowhere does the word of God encourage us or give us permission to add 3 ˝ years plus 3 ˝ years to come to seven years for a tribulation. I believe that I have successfully shown that they cannot use Daniel 9:27 to prove their teachings on a seven year tribulation and some supposed treaty in which the antichrist makes and then breaks with Israel. These teachings, however, would probably die of without the flesh-satisfying promise of a pretribulation rapture breathing life into it all.

            Scripture had to be twisted to promote the rapture as well, because there is clear scripture in the KJV which disproves this rapture. Below I have listed three footnotes which came out of the Scofield Reference Bible. They were inserted to make people think the KJV is incorrect in scriptures which help disprove the rapture. Scofield attempts to ‘correct’ the KJV to conform to the Revised Version and all the other modern versions. Those footnotes, which comply totally with the Alexandrian texts, were put there to confuse you and not let you know that the Day of the Lord and the Day of Christ (Jesus) are one in the same.

      (footnotes below taken from the Scofield Reference Bible)


Page 1212, 1 Corinthians 1:8, footnote "2"
A.V. has "day of Christ," #2Th 2:2 incorrectly, for "day of the Lord"

1216, 1 Corinthians 5:5, margin note "d"
Some ancient authorities omit "Jesus."

Page 1271, 2 Thessalonians, Introduction
The theme of Second Thessalonians is, unfortunately, obscured by a mistranslation in the A.V. of 2:2 where "day of Christ is at hand" See [1Co 1:8] should be, "day of the Lord is now present" (See [Isa 2:12], ref).

            According to dispensationalist teachings, the Day of (Jesus) Christ and the Day of the Lord are two completely different days. The Day of Christ, they claim is the rapture when Jesus comes to take us to heaven and give us our rewards. The Day of the Lord, on the other hand is claimed to be seven years later, when the Lord comes down and executes judgment. In Scofield’s own words:

The expression "day of Christ," occurs in the following passages: #1Co 1:8 5:5 2Co 1:14 Php 1:6 2:16. A.V. has "day of Christ," #2Th 2:2 incorrectly, for "day of the Lord" #Isa 2:12 Re 19:11-21 The "day of Christ" relates wholly to the reward and blessing of saints at his coming, as "day of the Lord" is connected with judgment.

Scofield Reference Bible, page 1212

In essence, if you read II Thessalonians 2:2-3 and you see that the ‘Day of Christ’ comes after the falling away and after the antichrist is revealed, then you know there is no pretribulation rapture. Therefore, they must change the wording to throw you off. John Darby, like Scofield, also insisted on using “day of the Lord” instead of “day of Christ” in reference to II Thessalonians 2:2.[iii]  This is significant because at the time (1850), the only versions readily accessible to the public with the rendering  of  “day of the Lord”  in II Thess.2:2 were Catholic bibles like the Rheims-Douay. Darby would not come out with his own version, which was based on the Alexandrian texts, until 21 years later. If he was a protestant with the Plymouth Brethren as he claimed, what was he doing using a Catholic bible to try to prove his teachings? The Not Deceived Network explains the manuscript difference below.


   Here is the King James translation. Note that the KJV uses the phrase "day of Christ" in verse 2.

1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, 2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

2 Thessalonians 2:1-2, King James Version

Here is the Textus Receptus. Note that the word "christou" is the last word. Obviously, it is Christ in the English. This is the text from which the KJV was translated.

Erôtômen de umas adelphoi uper tęs parousias tou kuriou ęmôn ięsou christou kai ęmôn episunagôgęs ep auton eis to mę tacheôs saleuthęnai umas apo tou noos męte throeisthai męte dia pneumatos męte dia logou męte di epistolęs ôs di ęmôn ôs oti enestęken ę ęmera tou christou.

2 Thessalonians 2:1-2, Textus Receptus

Now here is the Alexandrian Text. Note that the word "kuriou" is found instead of "christou". The word "kuriou" is translated as Lord in Bibles based on this set of manuscripts.

Erôtômen de umas adelphoi uper tęs parousias tou kuriou ęmôn ięsou christou kai ęmôn episunagôgęs ep auton eis to mę tacheôs saleuthęnai umas apo tou noos męde throeisthai męte dia pneumatos męte dia logou męte di epistolęs ôs di ęmôn ôs oti enestęken ę ęmera tou kuriou.

2 Thessalonians 2:1-2, Alexandrian Text

            Can you see where the evolution of  dispensationalism progressed at roughly the same rate that the corrupted Vatican bibles could be secretly introduced into protestant circles? In fact, the more I looked, the more I found a Catholic connection associated with dispensationalism and the pretrib rapture, as have many others. Modern day Vatican spokesman Jack Van Impe has obviously been recruited to maintain this heretical lie that the “day of the Lord”  and  “day of Christ”  are two different days. Below are definitions of the two taken from his prophetic dictionary:

Jack Van Impe's Dictionary of Prophecy Terms


The special day in the life of our Lord when He comes for His Bride is called the Rapture (Philippians 1:10; Philippians 2:16). It is also called the Day of the Lord Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 1:8), the Day of the Lord Jesus (1 Corinthians 5:5; 2 Corinthians 1:14 ), the day of Jesus Christ (Philippians 1:6).

This term should not be confused with "the Day of the Lord." Note that the term "day of Christ" in 2 Thessalonians 2:2 should be translated "Day of the Lord."


The Day of the Lord begins as the Tribulation period commences. It continues through the 1,000-year reign of Christ because the destruction of the world by fire afterward is still called the Day of the Lord (See 2 Peter 3:10). Some try to make this the Rapture, causing confusion. It begins immediately after the Rapture. This is the reason that the Day of the Lord comes as a thief in the night (1 Thessalonians 5:2).


            A couple things should pointed out in Van Impe’s statements. (1) Through his definition of the ‘Day of the Lord’ he has added a seven year tribulation to it, giving it a total of  1007 years. Should II Peter 3:8 be changed from “But beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day” to reflect Jack’s mathematics? Apparently Jack is ‘ignorant of this one thing’. (2)  Jack states above that the Day of the Lord  begins immediately after the rapture. To quote him, he says “This is the reason that the Day of the Lord comes as a thief in the night (1 Thessalonians 5:2).”  Jesus says in Rev. 3:3 and 16:15 that he comes as a thief. How could Jesus come as a thief and the Day of the Lord come as a thief unless the rapture and the Day of the Lord are the same day? 

 I hate to disappoint people, but the Lord Jesus Christ is only returning once (Hebrews 9:28) and he will reward the righteous and judge the unrighteous at that time (Rev.11:18), immediately after the tribulation ( Matthew 24:29-30).

Check back periodically for updates.




[i]  The 1599 GENEVA BIBLE. L. L. Brown Publishing, Ozark, MO: 1990, p. 109

[ii] Dave MacPherson, The Rapture Plot. Millennium III Publishers, Simpsonville, SC: 1995, p. 65

[iii] Dave MacPherson, The Rapture Plot,p.p.124,125 as taken from J.N. Darby ”Short but serious Examination of…’Daniel the Prophet’” (1850), Prop.No. 4,p.67